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Reason: None provided.

Nobody's cheering on gas chambers, meat head.

It's seeing the Allies propaganda for what it is... Some truth, but a shit ton of lies made "true" by Might Makes Right.

You look like a meat head because you're just carrying on the anti-German sentiment that was very common, and present years before WW2 started, and you can't examine the possibility that Hitler was a perfectly rational response to the WW1 conditions placed on them, and the existential crisis regarding the potential Bolshevist takeover of the continent.

Have you ever talked to Poles who lived there during the invasion? Some of them hate Churchill more than Hilter, and they saw the Nazi conditions of takeover preferable to the Soviets', because the Soviet wave coming through your town meant nothing but rape, torture and death.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Soviet_war_crimes#Poland

It is probable that many of these reports were exaggerated. It is certain that the “White Terror” also committed terrible deeds, even though its program contained no analogy to the “extermination of the bourgeoisie”. Nonetheless, the following question must seem permissible, even unavoidable: Did the National Socialists or Hitler perhaps commit an “Asiatic” deed merely because they and their ilk considered themselves to be the potential victims of an “Asiatic” deed? Wasn’t the 'Gulag Archipelago' more original than Auschwitz? Was the Bolshevik murder of an entire class not the logical and factual prius of the "racial murder" of National Socialism? Cannot Hitler's most secret deeds be explained by the fact that he had not forgotten the rat cage? Did Auschwitz in its root causes not originate in a past that would not pass?

-Ernst Nolte

3 years ago
1 score
Reason: Original

Nobody's cheering on gas chambers, meat head.

It's seeing the Allies propaganda for what it is... Some truth, but a shit ton of lies made "true" by Might Makes Right.

You look like a meat head because you're just carrying on the anti-German sentiment that was very common, and present years before WW2 started, and you can't examine the possibility that Hitler was a perfectly rational response to the WW1 conditions placed on them, and the existential crisis regarding the potential Bolshevist takeover of the continent.

It is probable that many of these reports were exaggerated. It is certain that the “White Terror” also committed terrible deeds, even though its program contained no analogy to the “extermination of the bourgeoisie”. Nonetheless, the following question must seem permissible, even unavoidable: Did the National Socialists or Hitler perhaps commit an “Asiatic” deed merely because they and their ilk considered themselves to be the potential victims of an “Asiatic” deed? Wasn’t the 'Gulag Archipelago' more original than Auschwitz? Was the Bolshevik murder of an entire class not the logical and factual prius of the "racial murder" of National Socialism? Cannot Hitler's most secret deeds be explained by the fact that he had not forgotten the rat cage? Did Auschwitz in its root causes not originate in a past that would not pass?

-Ernst Nolte

3 years ago
1 score